Tuesday, December 1, 2009
Monday, November 3, 2008
MICRO BIOLOGY EAMCET QUESTION PAPER
BOTANY
1. The chemicals used in Gram staining process are obtained from
1) Clostridium acetobutylium and lactobacillus
2) Acetobacter aceti and zymomonas mobilis
3) Clostridium acetobutylicom and zymomonas mobilis
4) Zymomonas mobilis and bacillus pollymyxa
2. In the following diseases how many are not caused by bacteria
I. Dysentry II. Influenza III. Polio IV. Plaque
v. Syphilis VI. AIDS VII. Vibriosis
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
3. Arrange the following in an ascending order that are involved during the uptake of a naked DNA molecule by a bacterial cell to achieve genetic recombination
I. Endonucleases II. Competence specific protein
III. Nucleases IV. DNA binding protein
1) I, III, IV, II 2) IV, I, III, II 3) IV, I, II, III 4) I, IV, III, II
4. Assertion (A): Corynebacterium renale has fimbriae.
Reason (R): The presence of fimbriae is the main feature of gram –ve bacteria..
1) Both A and R are true R is the correct explanation to the A
2) Both A and R are true R is not correct explanation to the A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
5. Assertion (A): The genetic material of maize rough dwarf virus is ssRNA.
Reason (R): Most of the plant viruses contains ssRNA as genetic material.
1) Both A and R are true R is the correct explanation to the A
2) Both A and R are true R is not correct explanation to the A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
6. Study the following table and find out the incorrect combination
I. Beggiota Filamentous Oxidises H2S
II. Bdellovibrio Parasite Insects
III. Corynebacterium renale Gram +ve Lysine
IV. Thiomargarita Coccus Atrichous
1) I and III 2) II and III 3) I and IV 4) II and IV
7. In the following kingdoms how many are includes the microorganisms
1) Animalia II. Fungi III. Monera IV. Protista V. Plantae
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 1
8. The maximum length of longest rod shaped bacterium is how many times greater than the minimum average length of other bacteria
1) 100 times 2) 500 times 3) 250 times 4) 350 times
9. The largest halophilic bacteria is found in the form of
1) Monococcus 2) Strepto coccus 3) Diplo coccus 4) Sarcina
10. Which of the following shapes are not exhibited by acetobacter
A) Oval B) Small rods C) Ellipsoidal D) Chain of cocci
E) Chain of bacilli
1) A and E 2) C and D 3) A and D 4) C and E
11. Comparatively the structure present out side to the cell wall is not essential for bacterial survival is
1) slime layer 2) s-layer 3) capsule 4) pili
12. The ratio between no. of protein filaments present in a flagellum of bacterium and flagellum of a eukaryotic cell
1) 1 : 11 2) 3 : 9 3) 1 : 3 4) 3 : 11
13. What are following structures that are very essential for the lithophytic bacteria for fixation
A) Capsule B) Slime layer C) S-layer D) Flagella
E) Pili
1) A and E 2) B and C 3) C and D 4) B and E
14. Find out the incorrect statements
A. All gram –ve bacteria contains pili
B. All gram +ve bacteria contains teichoic acid
C. Minimum no. of flagella present in amphitrichous bacterium is two
D. Sex pili are more in number than fimbriae
E. Sex pili are smaller than fimbriae and having hollow core
1) All except two 2) All except one 3) All except three 4) All
15. A. H2 + O2 ® H2O B. S ® H2SO4 C. NH3 ® NO2–
D. Fe++ ® Fe+++ E. H2S ® S
In the above reaction what are the reactions oxidized by the rod shaped bacteria
1) A and D 2) B and C 3) B and D 4) C and E
16. How many of the following bacteria having chlorophylls
A. Hydrogenomonas B. Rhodospirillum C. Chlorobium D. Nitrobacter
E. Rhodo microbium F. Chromatium
1) 2 2) 3 3) 5 4) 4
17. Find out the bacteria that are involved in the following reactions
1) N2 NH3 NO3– N2
1) A – Nostoc, anabaena B – Nitrobacter, nitrosomonas C – Thiobacillus
2) A – Rhizobium, Azospirillum B – Bacillus, Clostridium C – Azotobacter
3) A – Rhizobium, Azospirillum B – Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter C – thio bacillus
4) Rhizobium, Azospirillum B – Bacillus, Azotobacter C – Nostoc, Anabaence
18. Endospore is surrounded by how many protein layers?
1) 3 2) 4 3) 2 4) Many
19. Assertion (A): In HFR x F– conjugation F– cell does not become Donor cell.
Reason (R): In this conjugation genetic material is not transferred from HFR to F–.
1) Both A and R are true R is the correct explanation to the A
2) Both A and R are true R is not correct explanation to the A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
20. Which of the following antibiotics are not obtained from streptomyces sps?
A. Oxytetra cyclin B. Bacitracin C. Vinegar D. Neomycin
E. Polymyxin B F. Chloram phenical F. Acetone G. Amphotericon
1) A D E G 2) B C E F 3) B E only 4) C F only
21. Find out the incorrect combinations
Disease Host Bacterium
A. Tuberculosis Dog Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Crown gall Apple Erwinia amylovora
C. Diphtheria Man Bacillus diphtheriae
D. Actinomycosis Cattle Vibrio tetus
E. Fire blight Pear Agrobacterium
1) All 2) All except two 3) All except one 4) All except three
22. What are biochemical techniques used to prove that the genetic material in TMV is RNA?
A. Ultracentrifugation B. Microchemical tests
C. X-ray crystallography D. Chromato graphy
E. Gel electrophoresis F. Southern blotting
G. Electron microspopy
1) A E F G 2) B D E G 3) A C G 4) C E G
23. Find out the correct statements?
A. Bacteriophages contains dsDNA or ssDNA or dsRNA
B. Phytophages contains dsDNA or ssRNA or dsRNA
C. Zoophages contains, dsDNA or dsRNA
D. All animal viruses contains DNA
E. Genetic material of host of phytophage is always DNA
F. Genetic material of host of zymophage is always RNA
1) All are correct 2) All except two 3) All except three 4) All except four
24. T2 bacteriophage shows how many equilateral triangle faces
1) 20 faces in head and 20 faces in tail 2) 20 faces in head and many faces in tail
3) Many faces in head and 20 faces in tail 4) 20 faces in head and no triangle faces in tail
25. How many nucleotides are present in the mRNA molecule which is involved in production of a single capsomere of TMV?
1) 158 2) 477 3) 474 4) 316
26. Arrange the following measurements in a descending order
A. Length of TMV B. Length of T2 bacteriophage
C. Diameter of TMV 4) Length of tail of bacteriophage
E. Diameter of central hole of TMV
1) A B C E D 2) A B D C E 3) E C D B C 4) D E C B A
27. The approximate length of T2 bacteriophage DNA is
1) 95m 2) 65m 3) 190m 4) 1000m
28. The term vegetative phage is applicable to
A. Temperature phage B. Virulent phage
C. Lysogen D. Lytic phage
1) A B C 2) A B D 3) B C D 4) A C D
29. The following processes are takes place in how many phases?
A. Lysozyme action B. Host DNA degradasion
C. Collision between viron and bacteriophages D. Tail fibres usage
E. Host cell wall ruptures
1) 1 2) 4 3) 2 4) 3
30. Mosaic diseases caused by viruses are transmitted through
A. Seeds B. Pollengrains C. Insects D. Fungi
E. mechanical transmission F. Nematodes
1) A B D E 2) A C E 3) B D F 4) A B D F
31. Assertion (A): Vector control is considered as an important strategy in preventing viral diseases.
Reason (R): Most of the plant viruses are transmitted by air, wind and water.
1) Both A and R are true R is the correct explanation to the A
2) Both A and R are true R is not correct explanation to the A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
32. Which of the following disease is transmitted by non-motile spores
1) Tobacco necrosis disease 2) Lettuce mosaic disease
3) Cherry ring spot disease 4) Potato leaf roll
33. Assertion (A): Transduction is occurs very rare in nature.
Reason (R): Rarely 2 or 3 in one million phages take part in lysogenic cycle.
1) Both A and R are true R is the correct explanation to the A
2) Both A and R are true R is not correct explanation to the A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
34. A DNA molecule of T2 bacteriophage is made up of 300 nucleotides out of which 60 are 2-amino oxypyrines. What will be the ratio of 6-amino purines and 5-hydroxy methyl pyrimidines seen in this
1) 1 : 1 2) 2 : 3 3) 3 : 2 4) 2 : 1
35. A bacterium divides once in every 35 minutes. If a culture containing 105 cells per ml is grown for 3 hrs short of 5 minutes. What will be the cell concentration per ml.?
1) 30 x 105 cells 2) 32 x 105 cells 3) 10 x 105 cells 4) 175 x 105 cells
36. Following is incorrect statement regarding Beggiota
A. It’s a filament like
B. Produce elemental sulphur during oxidation
C. It derives energy from organic substance
D. It oxidizes hydrogen in the presence of oxygen
1) A C 2) A D 3) C D 4) A B
37. Assertion (A): In lysogenic life cycle the host cell does not get lysed immediately.
Reason (R): Viral DNA integrated with bacterial genome.
1) Both A and R are true R is the correct explanation to the A
2) Both A and R are true R is not correct explanation to the A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
38. Which of the following is not true about plant diseases caused by phytophages.
I. The plant diseases by viruses are generally systemic.
II. Symptoms of the diseases generally observed in leaves
III. Breaking of flowers in seen in coco
IV. Vein banding seen in Bhendi
1) I, III 2) III, IV 3) II, IV 4) I, IV
39. There are 8 sarcina on a laboratory slide. Total number of chromosomes found on slide is
1) 64 2) 8 3) 32 4) 16
40. The approximate length of RNA molecule of TMV is
1) 6500Å 2) 22100Å 3) 39 x 106 Å 4) 22100 nm
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Date: 04–11–2008 BOTANY Max. Marks: 40
1. Find out the correct statements
A) R.sexualis is a homothallic and self compatible species
B) R.stolonifera is a heterothallic and self compatible species
C) R.sexualis is a heterothallic and self compatible species
D) R.stolonifera is a homothallic and self incompatible species
E) R.stolonifera is a heterothallic and self incompatible species
1) A and B 2) B and C 3) A and E 4) A and D
2. A microscope slide regarding Rhizopus shows three different kinds of spores named as A B C. A is a haploid resting spore with many nuclei and thick cell wall. B is a diplid spore C is a haploid spore with single nucleus. Find out the A B C spores
1) A – Germspore, B – Zygospore, C – Sporangiospores
2) A – Sporangiospore, B – Zygospore, C – Germspore
3) A – Parthenospore, B – Zygospore, C – Germspore
4) A – Zygospore, B – Parthenospore, C – Germspore
3. Arrange the following structures in an ascending order
A) Maximum no. of nuclei in each sporangiospore
B) Minimum no of sporangiophores in each fascicle
C) Minimum no. of speta in each sporangiophore D) No. of Rhizopus species
E) Maximum no. of sporangia in each fascicle
1) D A E B C 2) C B E A D 3) D A E B C 4) C B A D E
4. The hyphae that always shows negative geotropic growth regarding Rhizopus mycelium
A) Sporangiophores B) Zygophores C) Germtube D) Progametangia
1) A B C 2) A B only 3) A C D 4) A C only
5. Assertion (A): Some species of Rhizopus are living as weak facultative parasites.
Reason (R): Some parasitic rhizopus species are rarely living as saprophytes on detached plant parts and fruits.
1) Both A and R are true R is the correct explanation to the A
2) Both A and R are true R is not correct explanation to the A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
6. In which of the following characters parthenospore of Rhizopus shows the similarity with parthenospore of spirogyra
A) No. of nuclei B) Ploidy C) Nature of wall layers
D) Type of condition when they are formed
1) A and D 2) B and C 3) B and D 4) A and C
7. Find out the correct statement
1) Vegetative mycelia of R.stolonifera are morphologically alike but physiologically different
2) Vegetative mycelia of R.stolonifera are morphologically and physiologically different
3) Vegetative mycelia of R.stolonifera are morphologically different but physiologically alike
4) Vegetative mycelia of R.stolonifera are morphologically and physiologically alike
8. A mycelium of Rhizopus having 25 chalamydospores, 30 zygospores and 35 parthenospores. If each spore contains 24 nuclei. How many new mycelia are produced in future from these spores and how many are alike to parental mycelium
1) 79, 79 2) 180, 60 3) 180, 180 4) 180, 79
9. In the following characters how many are related to the rhizoids of Rhizopus
A) Extracellular digestion B) Helps in spread of mycelium over and substratum
C) Stouter hyphae D) Branched hypae E) Involved in the formation of tubers
F) Providing anchorage
1) 2 2) 4 3) 5 4) 3
10. Assertion (A): Older hyphae of Rhizopus forms non-perforated septa.
Reason (R): The secondary cell wall of older hyphae does not having bordered pits.
1) Both A and R are true R is the correct explanation to the A
2) Both A and R are true R is not correct explanation to the A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
11. Assertion (A): Older hypha of Rhizopus lacks 70s ribosomes.
Reason (R): Rhizopus is a fungus. Hence it lacks plastids
1) Both A and R are true R is the correct explanation to the A
2) Both A and R are true R is not correct explanation to the A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
12. Match the following regarding Rhizopus
List – I
List – II
A. Chlamydospores
B. Sporangiospores
C. Zygospores
D. Germspores
I. Rarely uni nucleate
II. Initially uninucleate later multi nucleate
III. Initially having diploid nuclei later having hyploid nucle
IV. Multinucleate spores with intervening empty parts
V. Initially having haploid nuclei later having diplid nuclei
A B C D A B C D
1) IV V III II 2) IV I II III
3) IV I III II 4) V II I III
13. Assertion (A): Chlamydospores formed in Rhizopus are always found in isolated forms.
Reason (R): In Rhizopus chlamydospores are intercalary in position.
1) Both A and R are true R is the correct explanation to the A
2) Both A and R are true R is not correct explanation to the A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
14. Arrange the following structures in a correct sequence that are formed during the sexual reproduction of R.stolonifera
A) Self compatible strains are stimulated by trisporic acid
B) Progametangia C) Copulating branches
D) Somatogamy E) Coenogametangia F) Fusion self compatible haploid nuclei
1) A C B E D F 2) A B C D E F 3) C B E D F 4) C B E D
15. A + gametangium of Rhizopus with 75nuclei is fused with a – gametangium of rhizopus with 60 nuclei. In the total no. of resultant 2n nuclei 25% nuclei are not able to undergo meiosis. How many meiotic division takes place in zygospore. How many haploid nuclei are degenerated? How many ‘+’ germspores are liberated?
1) 45, 135, 180 2) 90, 45, 90 3) 60, 0, 240 4) 45, 0, 90
16. In the following matchess how many are represents incorrect expression?
A) Rhizopus – bread mould – white fluffy mycelium on stale bread
B) Spirogyra – Pond sik – free floating slimy mosses
C) Rhizopus – black mould – black coloured zygospores
D) Spirogyra – pond scum – filament is slimy to touch
E) Rhizopus – weed of the laboratory – contaminant in cultures
F) Rhizopus – Pin mould – pin head like sporangia with sporangiophores
1) A C E F 2) B C D 3) A E F 4) B C D E F
17. Find out the incorrect statements
A) R.stolonifer mycelia produce two kinds of sporangiospores and one kind of germspores
B) R.sexualis mycelia produce one kind of sporangiospores and one kind of meiospores
C) R.stolonifer mycelia produce one kind of sporangiospores and two kinds germspores
D) R.sexualis mycelia produce two kinds of sporangiospores and one kind of germ spores
E) R.stolonifera mycelia produce two kinds of sporangiospores and two kinds of meiospores
1) A and D 2) B and E 3) A, B and E 4) A, C and D
18. At the time of asexual reproduction Rhizopus mycelium having the following types of hyphae
A) Rhizoids B) Stolons C) Sporangiophores
1) A and B 2) C only 3) A and C 4) A, B and C
19. Assertion (A): Trisporic acid is very essential to the R.stolonifer mycelia to complete their sexual reproduction.
Reason (R): Trisponic acid is sexual enzyme which stimulates physiological differentiation.
1) Both A and R are true R is the correct explanation to the A
2) Both A and R are true R is not correct explanation to the A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
20. How many following taxonomic units are not related to Rhizopus?
A) Mucorales B) Conjugales C) Mucoraceae
D) Zygnemataceae E) Chlorophyceae
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
21. Arrange the following numbers in an ascending order
A. No. of spirogyra species B. No. of species of Funaria growing in India
C. Total no. of Funaria species D. No. of species of Rhizopus
1) C A D B 2) A C D B 3) B D C A 4) C A B A
22. In relation to photosynthesis Funaria plant is comes under the group
1) Sciophytes 2) Heliophytes
3) Plants with scoto active stomata 4) Etiolated plants
23. Which of the following characters are applicable to rhizoids of Funaria
A) Branched structures B) Oblique septa
C) Red colored D) Colorless when young
E) brown colored when young F) Arise from the base of the stem
1) A B C E F 2) A B D E 3) A B C D F 4) A B D F only
24. Recognise the anatomical parts of Funaria that are shown Intercellular spaces
A) Cortex of stem B) Lamina region C) Epidermis of stem D) Hydroids
E) Apophysis of capsule
1) All 2) All except one 3) All except four 4) All except three
25. Cell walls of hydroids are made up of
1) cellulose 2) Lignin 3) Suberin 4) 1 and 2
26. Assertion (A): Vegetative stage of Funaria does not shows transpiration due to the lack of stomata.
Reason (R): Stomata are act as main transpiring organs.
1) Both A and R are true R is the correct explanation to the A
2) Both A and R are true R is not correct explanation to the A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
27. Rhizoids ® (A) ® Protema ® Buds ® Gametaphotres
Phylloids ® (B) ® Gametophores
Cauloid ® (C) ® Buds ® Gametophores
Find out the A, B, C with respect to vegetative propagation of Funaria
1) A-secondary proteonema, B-gemmae, C-Tubers
2) A-Gemmae, B-Tubers, C-secondary protonema
3) A-Tubers, B-Gemmae, C-secondary protonema
4) A-Gemmae, B-secondary protonema, C-Tubers
28. The vegetative reproductive structures that are formed from normal leaves (non-injured)
1) Gammae 2) Tubers 3) Secondary protonema 4) None
29. Assertion (A): Antheridiophore of Funaria is commonly called ‘Male flower’.
Reason (R): The orange coloured pericheatial leaves with centrally located green coloured antheridia look like a flower.
1) Both A and R are true R is the correct explanation to the A
2) Both A and R are true R is not correct explanation to the A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
30. Assertion (A): Antheridia at different developmental stages are present in the antheridial cluster of Funaria.
Reason (R): The production of antheridia in antheridial cluster is simultaneous.
1) Both A and R are true R is the correct explanation to the A
2) Both A and R are true R is not correct explanation to the A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
31. How many of the following habitats are applicable to Funaria?
A) Parasitic habitat B) Lithophytic habitat C) Symbiotic habitat D) Sciuphytic habitat
E) Heliophytic habitat F) Epiphytic habitat G) Amphibious habitat
1) 3 2) 5 3) 4 4) 6
32. Find out the correct description regarding Funaria leaves
1) Obovate, sessile with acute tip 2) Ovate, pedicellate with acute tip
3) Ovate, sessile with serrate margin 4) Ovate, sessile with acute tip
33. A: Green at first but turns finally to dark brown.
B: Colourless at first but turns finally to red or brown.
The above descriptions are suitable to the which of the following parts of Funaria.
1) A – Rhizoids, B – Anthredia 2) A – Capsule, C – Archegonia
3) A – Capsule, C – Rhizoids 4) A – Rhizoids, C – Archegonia
34. Assertion (A): Funaria is called a “Myxohydric moss”.
Reason (R): In Funaria water is conducted externally through capillary channels and internally through tracheids.
1) Both A and R are true R is the correct explanation to the A
2) Both A and R are true R is not correct explanation to the A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
35. Arrange the following layers in a descending order regarding Funaria capsule
A) Minimum rows of cells in inner spore sac
B) Maximum rows of cells in outer spore sac
C) Maximum rows of cells in diaphragm
D) Minimum rows of cells in the annulus
E) Minimum rows of cells in spore sac
1) A C B E D 2) A E C B D 3) D B C E A 4) D B E C A
36. One antheredial cluster contains 6 antheridia. Each antheridium contains 24 androcyte mother cells. How many antherozoid are liberated from this entire Funaria plant
1) 144 2) 576 3) 288 4) 432
37. The transverse section of neck of archegonium in Funaria shows how many cells
1) 6 2) 9 3) 8 4) 7
38. Twisting and curling nature of the following parts promotes spore dispersal
A) Seta of fuanria B) Germ tube of Rhizopus
C) Archegoniophore of Funaria D) Sporangiophore of Rhizopus
E) Antheridiophore of Funaria
1) A and B 2) C and D 3) A and D 4) D and E
39. Number of peristomial teeth that triangular shaped in each capsule of Funaria
1) Outer 16 2) Inner 16 3) None 4) 32
40. One spore of Funaria produces how many Protonema?
1) Many 2) Always one 3) Always two 4) One or two
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Sunday, November 2, 2008
my love for botany
Hello students you know botany is a very easy and intresting subject. U will ask ur doubts through this blog. I will posting here many comparative tables, question papers , charts ,applications and some tips, all these are very helpful to u and make botany learn very easy------------------------------------------RAVI TEJA, BOTANY LECTURER,
NARAYANA COLLEGE, NELLORE